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Post 60

Sunday, June 5, 2005 - 9:26pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel:
>"No number of repeated observations can establish a universal law with any certainty or probability, and it is illogical to demand otherwise".

Nathan:
>Take out the word "any" and I'll agree, if by "probability" you mean computed probability.

Done!

"No number of repeated observations can establish a universal law with certainty or probability, and it is illogical to demand otherwise".

And of course, the non-computational sense of "probability" or "probable" is the colloquial one, which refers to our vague conjectures based on past experience - like "the new Star Wars movie will be crap, in all probability" or " it will probably rain at Easter, it always does". Such formulations are entirely innocuous to my point, as sure enough, the Star Wars movie *was* crap, and it *didn't* rain at Easter, neither of which we would dream of using as examples *for* or *against* the method of induction, or for or against any universal laws, and neither of which conflict in the slightest with Popper's alternative proposal. I myself use these and other words - "likely", "surely" etc - all the time in this hypothetical sense.

So, with that clear, do you still consider I am "completely misrepresenting" what you are saying? To the contrary, it looks to me as if we almost completely agree.

- Daniel





Post 61

Sunday, June 5, 2005 - 11:45pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel:


Daniel:
>"No number of repeated observations can establish a universal law with any certainty or probability, and it is illogical to demand otherwise".

Nathan:
>Take out the word "any" and I'll agree, if by "probability" you mean computed probability.

Done!

"No number of repeated observations can establish a universal law with certainty or probability, and it is illogical to demand otherwise".



OK, but it still depends upon what you mean by "probability."

And of course, the non-computational sense of "probability" or "probable" is the colloquial one, which refers to our vague conjectures based on past experience - like "the new Star Wars movie will be crap, in all probability" or " it will probably rain at Easter, it always does". Such formulations are entirely innocuous to my point, as sure enough, the Star Wars movie *was* crap, and it *didn't* rain at Easter, neither of which we would dream of using as examples *for* or *against* the method of induction, or for or against any universal laws, and neither of which conflict in the slightest with Popper's alternative proposal. I myself use these and other words - "likely", "surely" etc - all the time in this hypothetical sense.
I'm still not clear on your meaning in the "No number of" sentence, and I'm afraid this paragraph about probability didn't help.
So, with that clear, do you still consider I am "completely misrepresenting" what you are saying? To the contrary, it looks to me as if we almost completely agree.
If you mean

"No number of repeated observations can establish a universal law with [absolute certainty] or [computable probability], and it is illogical to demand otherwise".

then I agree.

If you mean

""No number of repeated observations can establish a universal law with [ANY degree of certainty] or [probability in the sense of more likely than not], and it is illogical to demand otherwise".

then I disagree.

In short, if you affirm that humans can acquire useful knowledge of reality via induction, even without explicit falsificatory procedures, then we agree. If you deny that, then we disagree.

Nathan Hawking


Post 62

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 1:41amSanction this postReply
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Nathan
>In short, if you affirm that humans can acquire useful knowledge of reality via induction, even without explicit falsificatory procedures, then we agree. If you deny that, then we disagree.

We disagree.

- Daniel


Post 63

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 1:52amSanction this postReply
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Daniel:

Nathan
>In short, if you affirm that humans can acquire useful knowledge of reality via induction, even without explicit falsificatory procedures, then we agree. If you deny that, then we disagree.

We disagree.

- Daniel


LOL

Glad we figured that out. Agree or not, it's been enjoyable for me, and I hope for you as well.

NH


Post 64

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 2:25amSanction this postReply
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Jeff:
>And perhaps I am misreading you to be asserting that induction is unjustified when you say 'logically unjustified'.

Well, that is Hume's argument. I take it to be basically correct, even if Hume himself did not take it seriously.

There a several problems with induction, as you know. But the major thing I worry about is that is that it opens the door to irrationalism. Because you end up saying your source of knowledge cannot be *logically justified* - it is justified by its own nature, and that is sufficient. And of course, once you do that any irrationalist can claim justification for the source their illogical beliefs *by the same token* - and how can you criticise them?

It is often thought that rejecting the inductive method leads to irrationalism. But I think this is a mistake - it is accepting induction that admits irrationalism. But anyway, it is a long debate, and can wait for now.

regards
Daniel

Post 65

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 2:30amSanction this postReply
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Jordan:
>You've made an interesting point about Rand's theory of concept-formation that I hadn't noticed before.

Thanks! I've actually done a workover on that particular passage some time ago (but not here at Solo), to see how her description of the process stacks up. If you are interested I will post it.

>I wonder what other Objectivists would have to say about it.

For the most part, I don't think Objectivists read Rand's contribution to the ITOE very critically. Otherwise this sort of thing would be more widely discussed already.

- Daniel


Post 66

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 2:33amSanction this postReply
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Nathan:
>Glad we figured that out. Agree or not, it's been enjoyable for me, and I hope for you as well.

Absolutely!

As Popper says "I can think of nothing more rational than a well conducted debate."

regards
Daniel




Post 67

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 6:14amSanction this postReply
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Daniel,

A question. If you deny that:

"... humans can acquire useful knowledge of reality via induction, even without explicit falsificatory procedures..."

Was knowledge acquired by induction before the advent of Popper was not useful? Or do you claim that there were explicit "falsificatory procedures" being used?

Thanks.

Laj.


Post 68

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 1:42pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel:
There a several problems with induction, as you know. But the major thing I worry about is that is that it opens the door to irrationalism. Because you end up saying your source of knowledge cannot be *logically justified* - it is justified by its own nature, and that is sufficient.

But Daniel, you STILL have not answered the question, What is the 'logical justification' for logic and deduction?

In other words, what is the logical justification for the process by which you insist we must justify induction?

Why do you keep avoiding that?
And of course, once you do that any irrationalist can claim justification for the source their illogical beliefs *by the same token* - and how can you criticise them?

It is often thought that rejecting the inductive method leads to irrationalism. But I think this is a mistake - it is accepting induction that admits irrationalism.

 

Nah! If I flip a coin and it comes up heads 10,000 times in a row, it is perfectly rational to believe that it is not a 'fair coin,' that some mechanism is making it come up heads, and that the 10,001st toss will probably come up heads.

The hidden premises of my belief are that 1) order exists in the universe, and 2) I am perceiving order, 3) repeating events tend to persist in that behavior: therefore this event will likely reoccur.

What's "irrational" about that? Name one thing.

Nathan Hawking






 


Post 69

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 2:58pmSanction this postReply
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Nathan:
>But Daniel, you STILL have not answered the question, What is the 'logical justification' for logic and deduction?

I do not know why you STILL keep asking this question, seeing I have answered it a few posts back.

But I will recap:

Deductive logic can be shown to be deductively justified.
Induction cannot be deductively justified.
In contrast, falsification *can* be deductively justified.
Conversely, deductive logic can also be shown to be *inductively* justified - that is, right more often than wrong based on past experience (if it wasn't, what use would it be?)
Finally, Popper argues that induction cannot even be *inductively* justified (see the passage I cited).

If you think that deduction cannot be deductively justified, or we should reject it because *it can be*, you are welcome to jettison logic. What you would be left with I cannot say.

OK?

Now you are welcome to accept a belief - such as induction - that lacks logical justification. Lots of people do. What happens then is they find *justifications elsewhere* - in tradition, in superstition, in what the government says, in their internal feelings or states, in "the way it has always been done". This I believe leads to irrationalism, or an unwillingness to accept reasoned argument. But that's just my opinion.

Nathan, in reading some of your other posts on various subjects, and during the course of this debate, I have been struck by how close you come to a Popperian position. Recall that Popper says that *induction* does not really exist; that it is a kind of "optical illusion", that it only *appears* that we rely on induction.

Perhaps I might compare Popper's alternative with the traditional picture of the inductive method. You might find it resembles your own more than you suspect.

- Daniel

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Post 70

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 3:12pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel,
Perhaps I missed it but, could you deductively demonstrate the/a deductive justification for deductive logic -- without circularity, of course?

Or perhaps provide a reference to where you have seen this demonstration successfully done. I confess that in almost 40 years of studying philosophy I've not seen that. But, then, I read very few 'moderns'.



Post 71

Monday, June 6, 2005 - 3:46pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel:

Nathan:
>But Daniel, you STILL have not answered the question, What is the 'logical justification' for logic and deduction?

I do not know why you STILL keep asking this question, seeing I have answered it a few posts back.

But I will recap:

Deductive logic can be shown to be deductively justified.
That's only claiming that it CAN. The question was, "WHAT is the 'logical justification' for logic and deduction?"

The reason I'm trying to get you to actually attempt an answer to that question is that you will discover, if you look deep enough, that deduction is ALSO founded upon axioms.
Induction cannot be deductively justified.
So you keep saying. Thus my previous question and it's purpose: If logic and deduction requires the assumption of axioms and rules of inference which are simply assumed but not "logically justified," why cannot induction be legitimately derived the same way?

Surely you don't imagine that deduction is just a universal GIVEN?
If you think that deduction cannot be deductively justified, or we should reject it because *it can be*, you are welcome to jettison logic. What you would be left with I cannot say.
I fear you are missing the point. I agree that the use of deductive reasoning is usually internally consistent with itself (there are exceptions), and usually an excellent tool for thought.

What I am pointing out is that DEDUCTION is subject to the selfsame criticism you would level at INDUCTION.

I wish to jettison neither.
Now you are welcome to accept a belief - such as induction - that lacks logical justification. Lots of people do. What happens then is they find *justifications elsewhere* - in tradition, in superstition, in what the government says, in their internal feelings or states, in "the way it has always been done". This I believe leads to irrationalism, or an unwillingness to accept reasoned argument. But that's just my opinion.

Nathan, in reading some of your other posts on various subjects, and during the course of this debate, I have been struck by how close you come to a Popperian position.
LOL I wish I had a nickel for every time someone told me I actually agreed with their position but just didn't know it.
Recall that Popper says that *induction* does not really exist; that it is a kind of "optical illusion", that it only *appears* that we rely on induction.
I find your previous statement rather odd in light of my belief in the exact opposite of this one.
Perhaps I might compare Popper's alternative with the traditional picture of the inductive method. You might find it resembles your own more than you suspect.
Please do. I'm certainly open to seeing things in a different way. I try to see things in a different way at least once a week.

Nathan Hawking


Post 72

Tuesday, June 7, 2005 - 2:47amSanction this postReply
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Jeff
>Perhaps I missed it but, could you deductively demonstrate the/a deductive justification for deductive logic -- without circularity, of course?....But, then, I read very few 'moderns'.

Hi Jeff,

Just before I respond, do you include Popper in "moderns" you've read? If so it may save me some typing...;-)

- Daniel



Post 73

Tuesday, June 7, 2005 - 2:48amSanction this postReply
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Nathan
>Please do. I'm certainly open to seeing things in a different way. I try to see things in a different way at least once a week.

Ok, will do so shortly.

- Daniel


Post 74

Tuesday, June 7, 2005 - 12:32pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel,
Can I ask what part of Popper's work gave you this impression? He actually goes into the issue of exercising a "critical preference" for one theory over another - including unfalsified ones - in some depth in his work.

Criteria include: 1) how well do they solve the problem posed? 2) how bold are they? ie: which would have the greater *informative content* if it survived testing? 3) which would produce the most interesting subsequent problems etc etc
Oh, I know. Popper's answer is unsatisfactory because I don't think it escapes induction, whereas Popper would argue they do. Because I think you're curious, I shall tell you that the source that most familiarized me with Popper is the popular book called Popper Selections. I've also read various and sundry other critiques and defenses of his views, the names of which I can't recall off the top of my head.
I suppose it also might be worth asking a) if you consider that induction does provide such an answer, or if not b) what you consider a satisfactory answer to such a problem would look like?
Well, Popper's answer is unsatifactory in the sense that it doesn't achieve what Popper wanted it to, namely, to set up an efficacious science without induction. Once we start picking among as-of-yet unfalsified theories, induction usually comes to play. I accept induction as a vital (though insufficient) part of science. I accept falsification, too. Incidentally, in post 1 of this thread, I also offered another helpful aid to reduce the problem of induction, particularly the example labeled "(A)." But I'd rather put off the details of my philosophy of science for another time, as it's digressive to this thread, and my time is rather limited. Maybe later though...
Thanks! I've actually done a workover on that particular passage some time ago (but not here at Solo), to see how her description of the process stacks up. If you are interested I will post it.
I'm interested.

Jeff,
Perhaps I missed it but, could you deductively demonstrate the/a deductive justification for deductive logic -- without circularity, of course?
Wasn't this part of Gödel's point - that no system can be proven by appeal to that system?

Jordan


Post 75

Tuesday, June 7, 2005 - 2:17pmSanction this postReply
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Jordan:


Jeff wrote:

Perhaps I missed it but, could you deductively demonstrate the/a deductive justification for deductive logic -- without circularity, of course?

Wasn't this part of Gödel's point - that no system can be proven by appeal to that system?

 

That's the common inference, but not the correct one, I think.

His most famous theorem, as I understand it, shows only that any CONSISTENT axiomatic system which can describe arithmetic will allow true but undemonstrable propositions.

In other words, the system is "proven" (insofar as being consistent) but some propositions which can be derived from the axioms cannot be. Thus the "incompleteness" designation of these theorems.

(Some things, like certain set theories, fare much worse than mere incompleteness by giving rise to actual contradictions or paradoxes.)

I would not disallow that deductive logic is internally consistent. But it inevitably rests on certain assumptions, and as such does not get a free pass as the standard by which we must judge INduction.

If induction can also be derived from simple assumptions and simple rules of inference, and from those it validates its own usefulness (which, by nature, precludes certitude or computable probabilities), then it is justified. 

In that, it is no different than deduction.

Nathan Hawking


Post 76

Tuesday, June 7, 2005 - 3:14pmSanction this postReply
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Nathan,

As I understand him, Gödel argues that a system cannot be both complete and consistent. It must be either complete, or consistent, or neither. It's my understanding that traditional deductive logic is consistent but incomplete; it rests on propositions (axioms, as non-Objectivists would call them) that escape (logical) proof.

Perhaps it would help for me to mention that I disagree with Daniel (and Popper) when they argue that induction is not inductively valid. In my view, induction has worked quite well in the past, so inductively, I can say it'll work quite well in the future. It's important to keep in mind that propositions derived inductively have always stemmed from striving toward forming some set of consistent observations. If a set of observations is found to be inconsistent, then it is falsified and not a valid induction. See, that's what I think falsification does: it helps us keep our inductions more honest. Falsification complements induction.

-Jordan


Post 77

Tuesday, June 7, 2005 - 4:01pmSanction this postReply
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Jordan:

Welcome back.

Nathan,

As I understand him, Gödel argues that a system cannot be both complete and consistent. It must be either complete, or consistent, or neither.
But the incompleteness theorem is usually only applied to 1) systems capable of producing integer arithmetic, 2) propositions about integers.

To extend it to all axiomatics systems is not noncontroversial, as I understand it.
It's my understanding that traditional deductive logic is consistent but incomplete; it rests on propositions (axioms, as non-Objectivists would call them) that escape (logical) proof.
I'm not sure I'd say deductive logic is incomplete in the same way Godel meant it for arithmetic-producing axiom systems. I'm not sure in what sense it COULD be decared incomplete, but if you can cite any references on that I'd be interested.
Perhaps it would help for me to mention that I disagree with Daniel (and Popper) when they argue that induction is not inductively valid. In my view, induction has worked quite well in the past, so inductively, I can say it'll work quite well in the future.

Sure. Agreed. And in furtherance of my own argument, I'd ask you to think about precisely WHAT you must assume about the universe and about consciousness to make that so.
It's important to keep in mind that propositions derived inductively have always stemmed from striving toward forming some set of consistent observations. If a set of observations is found to be inconsistent, then it is falsified and not a valid induction.
I think this is true, but I don't see it as a great Popperian discovery.

I give him credit for popularizing and formalizing the idea, but falsification has always been INHERENT in the nature of induction, i.e., we hold something as likely if it's always been observed to be the case (say, black ravens) and abandon the generalization which a counterexample is discovered.

As I say, that's inherent in the very nature of induction, conscious or unconscious. Don't you think?
See, that's what I think falsification does: it helps us keep our inductions more honest. Falsification complements induction.
Agreed, but I'm now more inclined to say it's in the nature of induction. Can you agree with that? 

(If induction is reasoning from the specifics to the general, it is also reasoning from the contrary of the specifics to the absense of a general, is it not?)

Nathan Hawking


Post 78

Tuesday, June 7, 2005 - 7:06pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Nathaniel,
I'd ask you to think about precisely WHAT you must assume about the universe and about consciousness to make that so.
It's no secret that induction depends on the uniformity (regularity, order, etc.) of nature. But like most of us have been saying, such uniformity is not logically justifiable; nature is not necessarily uniform. 
As I say, [falsification is] inherent in the very nature of induction, conscious or unconscious. Don't you think?
I find it better to consider falsification as a complement to induction. Induction deals with building a theory up; falsification, shooting it down. In my view, they are (at least in part) flipsides to the same coin, as some Objectivists like to say.

Jordan


Post 79

Tuesday, June 7, 2005 - 8:41pmSanction this postReply
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Jordan:

Hi Nathaniel,

I'd ask you to think about precisely WHAT you must assume about the universe and about consciousness to make that so.
It's no secret that induction depends on the uniformity (regularity, order, etc.) of nature. But like most of us have been saying, such uniformity is not logically justifiable; nature is not necessarily uniform. 
But isn't an elemental fact which is "not logically justifiable" precisely why we axiomatize something?

As I say, [falsification is] inherent in the very nature of induction, conscious or unconscious. Don't you think?
I find it better to consider falsification as a complement to induction. Induction deals with building a theory up; falsification, shooting it down. In my view, they are (at least in part) flipsides to the same coin, as some Objectivists like to say.

I agree with what you're saying insofar as its utility.

My point, though, is that falsification is not likely something recently employed or discovered. It's inherent in the nature of induction and has been, I suspect, used since the very first time induction was employed by a conscious entity.

In short, is it really induction if it only says:
  •   A: 'If 100 X ARE black then all X are likely black'
without
  • 'If an X is NOT black then A is false'?
I'm trying to imagine life for a consciousness where only the first was possible but not the second. Where one could only FORM hypotheses but never dismiss them. Perhaps that's cognitively possible, but one wonders at the prospect for survival of such an entity.

Anyhow, I think those are interesting questions.

Nathan Hawking


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