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Post 0

Friday, January 5, 2007 - 8:03amSanction this postReply
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"(i) there are objective moral truths;"

Yes

"(ii) we know some of these truths through a kind of immediate, intellectual awareness, or “intuition”;"

I don't think so.

"(iii) our knowledge of moral truths gives us reasons for action independent of our desires."

Is this suggesting altruism or future directed action?



Post 1

Friday, January 5, 2007 - 2:56pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Mike,

Concerning (iii) I don't think Huemer is suggesting nor commending altruism by that thesis alone. However, at that stage of metaethics, he is still leaving the question open whether altruism or egoism or both could be part of a rational morality. The issues decided in (iii) pertain to those you find in Chapter 7 if you click on the Analytical Contents button. I quote the first part of the AC for Chapter 7 Practical Reasons

7.1   The Humean argument against realism

Motivating reasons are distinguished from normative reasons. Humeans believe that reasons for action depend on desires, that moral attitudes inherently provide reasons for action, and that no mere belief about an objective fact is sufficient for the having of a desire. They conclude that moral attitudes are not beliefs about objective facts.

7.2   The connection between motivating and normative reasons

The ‘ought implies can’ principle and the principle of charity in interpretation can each be used to establish a close tie between normative and motivating reasons.

7.3   A rationalist conception of motivation

People are motivated by appetites, emotions, prudential considerations, and impartial reasons. The latter two are not desires in the ordinary sense. Moral reasons are a species of impartial reasons.



Concerning (ii) I'm with you. I approach Professor Huemer's book as a skeptic concerning ethical intuitionism. I do not see any reason to pose intuition as a basic form of cognition in epistemology in general, so Huemer will have to persuade me in his book that I am mistaken about that or that such a mode of cognition needs to be introduced specially for rational cognition in ethics. My present view for epistemology of ethics is that it can make do with the same types of cognition we envoke for epistemology in general. That is, I would expect to be able to resolve intuition into perception, conception, imagination, and feeling. But am open to having my mind changed, especially by the likes of Michael Huemer.

Stephen 




Post 2

Saturday, January 6, 2007 - 12:53pmSanction this postReply
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 Hi Stephen,

Regarding "ii", I found the following on Michael Huemer's website

"5.2 Ethical intuitions

Reasoning sometimes changes how things seem to us. But there is also a way things seem to us prior to reasoning; otherwise, reasoning could not get started. The way things seem prior to reasoning we may call an 'initial appearance'. An initial, intellectual appearance is an 'intuition'. That is, an intuition that p is a state of its seeming to one that p that is not dependent on inference from other beliefs and that results from thinking about p, as opposed to perceiving, remembering, or introspecting.(4) An ethical intuition is an intuition whose content is an evaluative proposition.

Many philosophers complain either that they don't know what an intuition is or that the term 'intuition' is essentially empty and provides no account at all of how one might know something.(5) I take it that these critics have just been answered. "


It seems to be a settled issue in his mind.  I find his reasoning a bit difficult to follow because I'm not used to trying to follow the language of philosophical discourse.  I may be able come into agreement with "intuition".  I don't think we are born with intellectual ideas.  But there is a pre-rational period of time in our development where perhaps these "intuitions" can be inculcated.  Similar to learning language.  We are "pre-wired" for language, is Michael Huemer suggesting the same for moral intuition?

And if something goes awry in the early development phase, we get a moral monster.  Similar to if a child is not exposed to language at the correct time they can never learn to speak.






Post 3

Saturday, January 6, 2007 - 1:15pmSanction this postReply
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Some problems with Huemer's efforts ...

In the Introduction of the Analytical Contents link, (presumably) Huemer states that there is a case for exactly 5 metaethical theories:

1.3   Five metaethical theories

There are exactly five metaethical theories: non-cognitivism, subjectivism, nihilism, naturalism, and intuitionism.

Here's the list again:
1. non-cognitivism
2. subjectivism
3. nihilism
4. naturalism
5. intuitionism

He then goes on to describe 4 alternative metaethical theories:
1. non-cognitivism
2. subjectivism
3. reductionism
4. intuitionism

How come the lists aren't commensurate? Where did nihilism and naturalism go? Were they supposed to be subsumed by "reductionism"? Let's explore Huemer's entries under reductionism -- to look for philosophical error ...

4.1   What is reductionism?

Reductionists believe (i) that what it is for a thing to be good can be explained using non-evaluative expressions, and (ii) that we know moral truths on the basis of observation.

Belief (i) is not necessarily true -- though it gets so much mileage in the realm of professional philosophy. Some facts have inherent value. In stating propositions about facts with inherent value, you can get to an evaluative conclusion. Perhaps a sorites is, or several syllogisms, strung together -- but it is not necessarily true that "what it is for a thing to be good can be explained using non-evaluative expression."

4.3   The is-ought gap

4.3.1   Hume’s Law: an initial statement

It is impossible to validly deduce an evaluative statement from non-evaluative premises.

Big deal (see above).

*4.3.3   Geach’s challenge

Geach’s attempted counter-example fails because it is invalid and one of its premises is evaluative.

But it's "okay" for one premise to be evaluative (see above) -- one premise can talk about that which true of the world; and the other premise can talk about that which is true of our relation to the world. There's no actual invalidity in that. It's merely a tragedy of convention.

4.4.1   Can moral facts be known by observation?

Even if moral properties are reducible, it would be fallacious to infer that we can know moral truths by observation. We cannot observe that a thing is good, because there is no distinctive way that good things look, sound, smell, taste, or feel.

Tell that to someone who's being tortured to death. Ask them if there is something better -- something that they "know" is better (than being tortured to death); something "distinctively" different (than being tortured to death). Ask them if there is a way that the better things "look, sound, smell, taste, or feel."

4.4.2   Can moral facts be known by inference to the best explanation?

Even if some moral facts are explanatory, we cannot know moral truths by inference to the best explanation, because moral facts do not explain any observations that could not be explained as well by non-moral facts.

This is an equivocation of "explanation" with "understanding" -- a wrong-headed, hyper-intellectualization of morality, per se. As an example, think about explaining color to a blind man -- and you will see that there's more to moral truths than mere intellectualism and accurate explanation. The reason that blind men won't ever "get" the explanation (no matter how well it is given to them) is that they have to have the experience of sight -- in order to understand the concept of color. In the same way, moral truths are things which we have all experienced -- even if the experience was just a bully stealing the milk from your pre-school lunch. Color couldn't be successfully explained to a blind man and, for the same reason, morality couldn't be explained to a computer.

*4.4.3   Can moral claims be tested?

Moral theories do not generate any testable predictions without relying either on ad hoc posits or on the assumption that conscious beings have some independent access to moral truths.

So what? Wow. Geez. You mean we'd have to "rely" on the "assumption" that conscious beings have some independent access to moral truths??? Preposterous!!! Because it has clearly been "known" for centuries that this is impossible, right? A "proper" assumption is to take the opposite conclusion (that beings have NO such access), right? Let me ask this poignant question: What -- besides breaking with "traditional thought" -- leads to the one assumption over the other? No answer? Just as I thought.

4.5   The argument from radical dissimilarity

The simplest argument against reductionism is that moral properties just seem, on their face, radically different from natural properties.

Only when human welfare is thought of as "unnatural."

4.6   Explaining moral beliefs

Reductionist accounts of how moral beliefs might be justified fail to apply to nearly anyone’s actual beliefs.


Social metaphysics. Social metaphysics. Social metaphysics. Enough of that 'professional philosopher' crap, already.

I'll post on ethical intuitionism later. For now, it was important to highlight the "problems" that Huemer has regarding the "problems" of alternative positions.

Ed

 

 

(Edited by Ed Thompson on 1/06, 1:18pm)




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